Apologetics for the Masses #476 - The Right Division of Scripture, Part 4

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Topic

How one single misinterpreted word, in one particular translation of the Bible - the King James Version (KJV) - has led to a massive perversion of the Word of God. Such is the nature of Protestant theology.

Introduction

Continuing my conversation with Tim Duma in regard to the "right division of Scripture" theology that he believes in and is trying to pawn off on me as the absolutely correct way to interpret Scripture. I pick up the conversation - centered on the nine original questions I had asked him - with the closing arguments I made in the last newsletter and put his responses underneath each of my questions/arguments. (If you need more context you can go back to the last newsletter - Apologetics for the Masses #475 - and read more of the conversation, but I don't think you'll really need to do so.)

As you can see, this "dialogue" is going nowhere fast. He cannot answer my questions/arguments with anything other than his own private, fallible, non-authoritative opinions/interpretations as to what the Scripture says or doesn't say. And, quite frankly, his interpretations are pretty whacko. Each go round his answers get more and more disjointed and make less and less sense. Most importantly, he cannot give me an answer to my question: By what authority?

So, this will undoubtedly be the last newsletter to carry my conversation with him, although I will continue, for at least a little while longer, with the conversation privately. Just use this as an example of when to shake the dust off your sandals and move on.

Challenge/Response/Strategy

John Martignoni
1) So your answer is, "no", you are not infallible in your interpretation of Scripture, because you are flawed and biased, correct?

Tim Duma
The scriptures are Perfect, and the Holy Spirit is perfect, The Lord Jesus is Perfect, but all men are not! When mistakes are made in Scripture it is when a “man” misapplies a verse that are NOT written to them, takes it out of context, uses a counterfeit bible, goes to the “Greek”, adds words, changes words, subtracts words, does NOT use the scriptures to define itself, gets a private interpretation from a flawed man, or does NOT take it literal (which should be taken most of the time), unless it is clearly like Jesus calling himself is a door, or vine, or foolishness as people thinking they can literally to eat Jesus in John 6. These will lead anybody down a bad path and will cause error! I will NOT use any of those tactics, so I can have sound doctrine! The word “infallible” appears one time in the scripture in Acts 1:3 and the context are The Lord Jesus Christ being alive and showing himself to the apostles proving his resurrection! (BTW that word has been changed in most of the modern counterfeit bibles to attack the infallible evidence of the glorious resurrection of the Lord Jesus Christ). So, your answer is as long as I stay in the boundaries of what can cause error, I can be infallible! BUT since ALL men are still sinners and flawed, they like I can have bias or make an honest mistake in not using the rules I laid out! So, in our discussion I will not purposely do those things so my answers to your 8 bible questions, should be infallible! I list Webster 1828 definition: . 1.Not fallible; not capable of erring; entirely exempt from liability to mistake; applied to persons. No man is infallible; to be infallible is the prerogative of God only. 2.Not liable to fail, or to deceive confidence; certain; as infallible evidence; infallible success. So, this definition is what I agree to, as it pertains to scripture, NOT in my personal life, or flawed sinner that I am!!!! (I am glad The Lord Jesus sees me perfect because I am in Him, and have been adopted by the Father Rom 8:5, Eph 1:5)

John you are asking the most important question for a foundation: What is your final Authority? This answer to this is WHY there is the big mess in “religion” and in “Christianity” I asked you this question in my last email and you have NOT answered! So, let me ask you again in a more detailed way, so WE know what we are dealing with?

1. Do you believe the King James Bible version is the pure, inerrant, perfect word of God and absolute final authority for believers today? Yes__ No___

2. If NO, does your final Authority exist on earth today in a pure, inerrant, tangible form in any language? Yes___ No__

3. If Yes, to #2, What and where is it? And if No, Why not??

4. If NO, does your final Authority exist on earth today in a pure, inerrant, tangible form in any language? Yes___ No__

5. If Yes, to #2, What and where is it? And if No, Why not??

Comments
Perfect example of the "Fallible in Theory, Infallible in Practice" Doctrine. Regarding the mistakes he mentions that one should avoid in order to be infallible when interpreting Scripture, notice there is no guidance, in the Scripture, which tells us which verses "apply" to which men in which time period. That is all decided by the private interpretations of fallible men, which makes it the Word of Duma, not the Word of God. Nor does the the Word of God tell us specifically which verses should be taken literally and which should not be taken literally. That is all decided, in right division theology, by the fallible interpretations of men. And notice that, of course, John 6:51-58 is not to be taken literally, according to the Word of Duma.

My answers to his questions are as follows:

1) The King James Version of the Bible Version (KJV) contains part of the inspired, inerrant Word of God, but, no, that version is not the "absolute final authority" for believers today. Nor does Tim Duma think it is. His private, fallible, non-authoritative (and quite flawed) interpretation of the KJV - the Word of Duma - is his "absolute final authority" for believers today.

2) Yes.

3) Jesus Christ - the Word of God - is my final authority and He exists in every tabernacle of every Catholic Church around the world.

4) N/A

5) Question is a repeat; see answer to #3.

Do you see how easy it is to give direct, and concise, answers to questions? But, I have never come across a Protestant who could consistently do so.

John Martignoni
2) Which means your answer is, "yes", you could misinterpret one or more Scripture verses, right? But, you then go on to say that you are indeed infallible in interpreting the Scriptures that you rely on for your answers to my eight original questions. So, no, this is not a "straw man" argument. If you are a flawed and biased, thus fallible, man, interpreting Scripture, then the fact that you are flawed, biased, and fallible means, by definition, that you could indeed interpret one or more Scripture verses incorrectly. You could, in fact, interpret any or all Scriptures incorrectly. Now, you stated, "BUT God has made it plain that MOST doctrines can be absolute in an answer." Where exactly, in the Bible, does God say, "I have made MOST doctrines plain enough that you can infallibly interpret them?" Can you give me book, chapter, and verse? And, please, I don't want your interpretations of this or that Scripture verses for this, I want the Bible verse, or verses, that say EXACTLY what you have said in this answer. I would offer, contrary to your statement, this, from the Word of God: "There are some things in them [Paul's letters] that the ignorant and unstable twist, as they do the other scriptures, to their own destruction." (2 Ptr 3:16). Seems like God hasn't made it plain about MOST doctrines.

Furthermore, why has God made "MOST" doctrines plain, but not all doctrines? That makes no sense. I mean, if you can't understand lesser matters about the Bible correctly - such as, to use your example, "who is one of the toes in Daniel's image in Daniel 2", then how can I trust you to understand the greater matters of Scripture correctly? Did the master tell each of the good servants in the Parable of the Talents (Matt 25), "Well done, good and faithful servant, I can't trust you in the little things, so I'm going to trust you with the more important things instead?" No! Jesus said that since the master could trust them in the little things, he could then trust them with greater things. Which means, if he couldn't trust them with the little things, then how could he trust them with the greater matters? So, if you admit that you could get it wrong in the lesser matters, which you have indeed admitted, how can your interpretations in the greater matters be trusted? How do you know when the Holy Spirit is guiding you and when He isn't? How do I, or anyone else you claim to be wrong, know when the Holy Spirit is guiding you and when He isn't?

Tim Duma
Romans 16:17 (KJV) Now I beseech you, brethren, mark them which cause divisions and offences contrary to the doctrine which ye have learned; and avoid them. John this verse shows that a person can KNOW sound doctrine, because WHY would you be given instruction to AVOID THEM, MARK THEM, whose cause division and offences in DOCTRINE!! Ephesians 4:14 (KJV) That we henceforth be no more children, tossed to and fro, and carried about with every wind of doctrine, by the sleight of men, and cunning craftiness, whereby they lie in wait to deceive; Again this verse tells you that “cunning men deceive”, in doctrine, so to be looking for these deceivers, (the ONLY way to know you are being deceived is to KNOW doctrine so you can point out the deceivers). 2 Timothy 3:16 (KJV) All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: Knowing doctrine you can reprove, correct, instruct, so obviously you have to KNOW doctrine!!

John the example I gave in Daniel toes, was a prophecy and many of those things are NOT yet revealed! So let me clarify so you understand me correctly. If the Lord has revealed a truth today, you can find the answer in scripture! For example, there are maybe 50 prophecies of the Lord’s first coming, that is rock solid sound doctrine! There maybe 500 to his second coming, so until He comes, we take them by faith, and when He shows up, we can see them all literally being fulfilled! But BOTH are solid Doctrine, BUT “how” he fulfills them will be at His timing as he reveals things that have not come to pass when concerning prophetic events!

Comments
This is perfect! The man whose theology is called "right division," is quoting a Scripture verse about avoiding folks who cause division! Plus, he says that people can "KNOW sound doctrine". Yes, and how is it they know that sound doctrine? Because they read the Scripture and interpreted if for themselves after "rightly dividing" it? NO! Because someone - Paul (a bishop of the Catholic Church) - who was infallible in his teaching, taught them sound doctrine. It was because of what they heard, not because of what they read!

His argument is, essentially: You need to know sound doctrine so that you won't be deceived. How do you know sound doctrine? According to the Word of Duma, you know it by rightly dividing the Word of God through private, fallible interpretation. But, that's not how the Romans or the Ephesians or Timothy learned sound doctrine. Plus, the Scripture being talked about in 2 Tim 3:16 is the Old Testament. Only the most scripturally ignorant person would ever find this guy convincing.

And, notice, he never answered my authority questions: "How do you know when the Holy Spirit is guiding you and when He isn't? How do I, or anyone else you claim to be wrong, know when the Holy Spirit is guiding you and when He isn't?" And, he never will.

John Martignoni
3) So, Jesus and Paul preached different gospels? Well, let me ask you this: Who did Paul learn the gospel from? Also, is there a difference between the gospel of grace and the gospel of Christ and the gospel of God? And, one last question here: Did Peter and Paul preach different gospels?

Tim Duma
They were taught by God for 3 years Gal 1:15-18. The Gospel of Christ appears 11 times in the NT, the Gospel of God appears 7 times in the NT and the Gospel of grace appears 1 time in the new testament and all 18 times it refers to the same Gospel we are saved by in our current dispensation, by faith in the precious blood of the Lord Jesus His death burial and resurrection Eph 2:8,9, ! Cor 15:1-4, John please note, NOT one time goes these terms appear in the book of Matt-John or beginning of Acts BECAUSE that was a Kingdom Gospel and it is different, (this is a key reason like most Roman Catholics and other groups are confused and deceived) your trying to match up a Kingdom Gospel with Paul’s Gospel and THEY DO NOT MATCH!!! The kingdom Gospel of faith and works today will send you to hell, and the gospel of grace will save you from hell!

Peter preached a kingdom gospel to jews Acts 2, but later did preach the correct gospel to Cornelius as he seen the gospel has gone to the gentiles acts 10! Paul preached a Gospel of Grace in Acts 16. If they are different, they can NOT be the same! Acts, Matthew, and Hebrews are the most difficult books in the NT, because they are transitioning books! This is where most cults, and false doctrines come from! (not placing the right teaching for the right people and age)

Let me give you a super clear example so a blind person couldn’t miss it!   In Mark 10:17-22, (found also in Matt 19:16-26, Lukee18:18-27) is a story about a young ruler asking the Lord Jesus Christ WHAT must he DO to inherit eternal life? Mark 10:17, READ what the Lord told him he has to DO v21. This is NOT the same answer the Philippian Jailer asked in Acts 16, or what Philip told the Ethiopia eunuch in Acts 8! How can they be the same!!! The Lord did NOT go to the cross yet in Matt -John, he was hopping the Jews would accept him as the messiah and bring in the kingdom!! He did not shed his blood, Die and resurrected the third day yet!!   They are DIFFERENT, DAAAAAA, John a simple person understands this simple point, IF they are different, THEY can NOT be the same! Hope I am shedding some light so you can see WHY you’re all messed up and have a different gospel the catholic church has! Remember I also got deceived when I was younger and a catholic, but at age 26 I got saved out of that cult! Amen & Amen Praise The Lord Jesus!!!

My Comments
DAAAA! What was I thinking?! I was SOOO blind! It all makes sense now! Yeah, right. This is so messed up. Jesus taught a different gospel than did Paul, although it was Jesus Who taught Paul the gospel. The Gospel of Jesus Christ as taught by Jesus is apparently different than the Gospel of Jesus Christ as taught by Paul. Go figure! And, Peter preached the wrong gospel in Acts 2, but later figured it out and taught the "correct" gospel. But, wait a minute, hadn't the Holy Spirit, at Pentecost (Acts 2), guided Peter (and the other Apostles) into "all the truth" (John 16:13)? If the Holy Spirit had guided Peter into "all the truth," how is it he was supposedly preaching the wrong gospel in Acts 2? Furthermore, why is it that after His death and Resurrection, Jesus told the Apostles to teach "all nations...to observe all that I have commanded you," if what He had commanded them was a gospel that will, as the Word of Duma says, "send you to hell"?! What's up with that? Didn't Jesus know that His Gospel of the Kingdom teachings needed to be put on the back shelf?

Do you see how, after just a few questions, Protestant theology starts to twist and turn and contradict itself all over the place? And especially so for this particular branch of Protestant theology!

And, yes, what Jesus said to the rich young ruler was different than what Paul said to the Philippian jailer. Why is that? Because the rich young ruler was, for one thing, under the Old Covenant. As a Jew, he had already come into covenant with God through his circumcision (Gen 17:10-14). In the New Covenant, circumcision is fulfilled in Baptism (Col 2:11-12) which supercedes and perfects it. Which means, neither the Philippian jailer nor the Ethiopian eunuch had yet entered into covenant with God through Baptism, which is why the first thing that Paul did with the jailer, and Philip did with the eunuch, was to baptize them. Believe and be baptized (Mark 16:16). So of course Jesus didn't tell the rich young ruler to believe and be circumcised - he already met both criteria. So, what else was needed? Keep the commandments. The same still holds true today. John tells us in his epistles to keep God's commandments (1 John 2:4-5; 5:3; 2 John 6).

Secondly, the different responses from Jesus and Paul and Philip to the rich young ruler, the jailer, and the eunuch, respectively, do not signify different gospels, they signify answers to men at different stages in their faith journey. The young ruler was already a believer and by his circumcision was in covenant with God. The jailer and the eunuch were brand new believers and had not yet entered into covenant with God through Baptism. So, of course what they are told is different then what the young ruler was told. "Right division" theology rips away context, rips away the continuity between the old and new covenants, and severs the relationship between the old and the new covenants, even though Scripture says the scribe who is trained for the kingdom of heaven brings out of his treasure what is new and what is old (Matt 13:52).

John Martignoni
4) Okay, so if you can't "rightly divide" the Bible by books, then where are the instructions, in the Bible, for which Bible verses and passages apply to whom and to when? All of your "rightly dividing" is nothing more than the fallible interpretations of men. Men trying to back into justifications for their beliefs by saying, "Oh, wait...that verse...or that half of a verse...is meant for another time and for other people, it's not meant for me today," which allows them to believe whatever the heck they want to believe by getting rid of Bible verses that very clearly contradict what they want to believe.

Tim Duma
John, you are clueless, I gave you the two examples of the devil trying to attack these two practices that has led to the mess we have today! Plus, you are in TOTAL disregard to 2 Tim 2:15, that tells us clearly how to STUDY the bible. This is your primary problem with most false doctrine and the RC cult! You are following a man and NOT scripture! JOHN it takes STUDY, (BTW another word removed by most apostate bibles). Just do what God says!

My Comments
Does anything he says here in any way, shape, or form address my question as to how one knows which Scripture verses, or partial verses, apply to which peoples in which dispensations? And why does it take study, if one is being guided by the Holy Spirit? Is the Holy Spirit not sure? Does the Holy Spirit need to figure it out?

John Martignoni
5) The verses you cite from 1 Cor 15 and 1 Thess 4 in reference to the "Rapture" are referring to the end of the world when Jesus returns for the 2nd and final time, not to a pre-tribulation rapture. We know this because there is a resurrection of the dead in both passages and the resurrection of the dead doesn't occur until the end of time with Jesus' 2nd coming. So, are there any other passages that refer to your "Rapture"? Do you believe Matt 24:37-41 and Luke 17:26-35 refer to your Rapture?

Tim Duma
John you just pulled those verses out of context to give me a private interpretation, in 1 Cor he is writing to a real church, and does NOT mention the second coming at all, SHOW ME SCRIPTURE at either place where Paul is talking about the second coming?? Christians today are not going to go through the wrath of God, 1 Thessalonians 5:9 (KJV) For God hath not appointed us to wrath, but to obtain salvation by our Lord Jesus Christ,   He is taking His bride home, make sure you are one of them and NOT left behind!

John are you aware there are 7 resurrections in Scripture?? Not one General resurrection! Rev 4: When John goes up after the trump , the “church is not mentioned again, just after the last church of Laodicea (type of churches today) Matt 24 & Luke 17 are second coming, he is talking to Jews, NOT NT believers!

My Comments
Wow! 7 resurrections! Big problem with that. John 6:40, "For this is the will of My Father, that every one who sees the Son and believes in Him, should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day." Believers in Christ will be raised up on the "last day". When is the last day? Well, if you interpret Scripture with Scripture, in John 12:48, Jesus says, “He who rejects Me and does not receive My sayings has a judge; the word that I have spoken will be his judge on the last day.” The wicked get judged on the "last day". There is no judgment of the wicked in Scripture, except at the final judgment at the end of time (Rev 20:11-15). So, the "last day" is the LAST DAY when Jesus returns to earth, the 2nd and final time, and the dead - all the dead - including those who believe in Jesus are resurrected. It's all on the same day - the LAST DAY! There is only one last day! So, no, there are not 7 resurrections of the dead.

Do you see why I asked him a question about the Rapture? Because Protestant theology on the Rapture is so very easy to obliterate...using nothing more than Scripture. And look at how he conflates dispensations here. He says Matt 24 and Luke 17 are not about the rapture, they are about the 2nd coming...because Jesus is talking to Jews. The Rapture, though, involves believers...Christians. Yet, he uses the "left behind" terminology of Matt 24 and Luke 17 - which, again, according to the Word of Duma is not about the Rapture - to tell me not to be "left behind" when the Rapture happens.

John Martignoni
6) No, not a straw man question. The fact is, you are misinterpreting Psalm 12:6-7. You know how I know? Because your interpretation means God's Word wasn't perfect the 1st 6 times around. That it is only after the 7th purification that God's Word was made perfect. How blasphemous is that? When has God ever spoken a word that wasn't perfect? Why would God's Word ever need to be purified? If His word needed to be purified, that would mean, by definition, that His Word wasn't perfect. Again, blasphemy! But, for the sake of argument, let's say your argument is correct, then my initial question is still valid because God's Word was not perfected, according to your interpretation, until the 7th time it was purified. So, first of all, please name for me the 6 other times God's Word went through purification? And, what were the perfect Bibles before the AV1611 that guided Christians for the first 1600 years of Christianity? And how did they know to "rightly divide" the Scriptures when that particular translation of 2 Tim 2:15 - using the word "divide" - didn't appear until almost 1600 years after the death of Christ?!

Tim Duma
No John let me explain the answer as to what the scripture SAYS, when God had the scripture in Hebrew, Aramaic, Greek, old Latan, Latan, German and NOW English (the universal language of our times) He had them preserved in those times for those people (that’s WHAT the SCRIPTURS say’, read you bible John, “thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever” V7, Why don’t you believe the Scripture John? When you go from one language to another, GODS hand is supernaturally in it and when He used languages, He preserves WHAT HE wants for us to know! DAAAAAA! Sorry John I believe God and not your ignorant interpretation! Purification takes place when you go from one language to another (see answer above). (No John I did NOT say that it was not perfect when it was in those other languages, it is of course perfect today, and we can hold it in our hands! John, can YOU hold a pure, perfect, without error copy of Gods word in YOUR hands?????

John I gave you a video of all of this so I don’t have to write pages on this? Watch the video and THEN ask me questions!

[In response to my question about how did Christians know to "rightly divide" the Scriptures before the English translation that says, "rightly dividing" ever existed? He says:] Because I can read plain English, and know what a simple word like “divide” means!

My Comments
So, God's Word is "purified" when it is translated from one language to another? And that's in the Bible?! Here's the thing, though: When something is purified it goes from a state of being unpurified - i.e., imperfect - to a state of being purified. That is the definition of the word. So he is indeed saying that God's Word was in an unpurified state until the KJV came along.

Also, he seems to think the Bible has only been translated into 7 languages over the last 2000 years. Yet, the original Preface to the KJV, which I guarantee Mr. Tim Duma has never seen, mentions many languages that the Scriptures had been translated into, not just Hebrew, Aramaic, Greek, Latin, German, and English. The KJV Preface mentions the following languages: Dalmatian (the country, not the dog), Syriac, Persian, Egyptian, Ethiopian, Indian, and "infinite other nations". Also specifically mentioned were: Armenian, Scythian, Sauromatian, Gothic, Arabic, Saxon, French, Slavonian, and Dutch. So, apparently, God's Word has been "purified" many more times than just 7. I'll have to send him that Preface for the KJV and see if it doesn't blow his mind.

John Martignoni
7) First of all, the King James Bible was not authorized by King John. It was King James. Secondly, are you trying to tell me that King James was infallible in his authorization of the Bible? What church did King James belong to, or does that not matter to you? And, according to your interpretation of Eccles 8:4, are you saying that the word of every king is infallible? King Herod was infallible? The kings of Assyria, Babylonia, Egypt, Greece, Rome, etc. were all infallible in their pronouncements?

Tim Duma
Yes King James, I was referring to you when you asked me and I said a KING! I am NOT saying ANY man (except The Lord Jesus) is infallible (includer a man that sits with a Dagon fish hat in Rome may say) what I am saying is the Lord and The Holy Spirit has used infallible man through history to accomplish His Perfect will!   And I am saying that He did it when He used King James to commission the perfect book that has changed the lives, of more people of all time!

My Comments
Notice what he says here. He - Tim Duma - is saying that God used King James to commission the "perfect book". Scripture is not saying it. The Word of God is not saying it. The Word of Duma is saying it. Exactly what I've been saying. Nothing he has said anywhere that pertains to his theology comes directly from Scripture. It comes from what the Word of Duma is saying the Word of God says, not from what the Word of God actually says.

John Martignoni
8) Glad to see that you are at least capable of admitting when you're wrong.

Tim Duma
The Greek texts are NOT copyrighted but I would like to see one of the 250+ counterfeit apostate bibles on the market that DO NOT have a copyright on them!

My Comments
He is apparently not able to grasp the concept that of course the Greek texts, nor any Bible before the 1700's, is copyrighted because copyright law did not exist until early on in the 18th century! If copyright law had existed in 1611, you can be dadgum sure that the KJV would have been copyrighted! Plus, I have already named two other Bibles - the Latin Vulgate and the Douay-Rheims that have no copyrights. Why is that? Because they were both published befrore copyright law was invented.

John Martignoni
9) Well, I contend that I am a spiritual man, therefore, you have no right to judge me. Furthermore, the Holy Spirit is telling me that the right division of Scripture is of lie of Satan, and that anyone who believes it and teaches it is putting their souls at risk of eternal damnation. So, you say your authority is God's Word. Where in God's Word do I find the name Tim Duma so that I may believe what you are saying is true? Where in God's Word do I see it said that the Holy Spirit will be guiding Tim Duma into all truth? So, again, I ask: By what authority do you declare my interpretations of Scripture wrong and yours right?

Tim Duma
John look at my first answer I wrote you above, my authority is the perfect word of God the King James Bible, I have the Holy Spirit in me when I trusted in back in the 80’s and by studying and rightly dividing the scriptures I can answer (Col 4:6, 1 Peter 3:15) not only the false world religions of the world, Buddhism, Hinduism, Islam, Judaism, Tribal religions, etc. but also, the Christian cults, Christian Science, Jehovah’s Witness, Seientology, Mormonism, Roman Catholic, etc. And also I can help out real saved brothers that are born-again in Christ who are my brethren but are in Laodicean churches or bad teaching churches, who are off doctrinally, bad bibles, Calvinists, new evangelicals, Lutheran, charismatics etc. So John I am be a real minister, who tries to win the lost, disciple believers, and correct brethren with bad teaching! 2 Timothy 4:2 (KJV) Preach the word; be instant in season, out of season; reprove, rebuke, exhort with all longsuffering and doctrine.   I look forward to ANSWERS to my questions, NOT more questions! 2 Timothy 2:23 (KJV) But foolish and unlearned questions avoid, knowing that they do gender strifes. (Hope this is not you) 😊 Tim

My Comments
His authority is the KJV. Yet, nowhere does the KJV mention the name, Tim Duma. So, why should I believe that the KJV gives him any authority whatsoever? And, he claims to have the Holy Spirit in him;yet, he has to study the Scriptures in order to come up with his answers. Again, what is it the Holy Spirit doesn't know that causes the Holy Spirit-led Tim Duma to have to study in order to gain knowledge? I got a kick out of his claim that He is a "real minister", by golly.

But, as I had said last week, there is no way that he would ever give, that he could ever give, a logically consistent and scripturally consistent answer to my questions about authority. His theology prevents him from being able to do so.

Closing Comments

Next newsletter I am going to start to analyze the writings of a Protestant who is attempting to answer "the questions Protestants can't answer" from my latest book. We'll see what he's able to come up with. I hope all of you have a great week!

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